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Mathematics Magazine for Grades 1-12
11/2003
Consideration on Fibonacci NumbersBy Mihai
Rosu Let
be the recurrent
sequence. Suppose
that
Writing the terms of this sequence, we get 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, (2) called the Fibonacci sequence and F is called the n-th Fibonacci numbers. Fibonacci was one of the greatest European mathematician of the middle ages, his full name was Leonardo of Pisa, or Leonardo Pisano in Italian, he was born in Pisa (Italy), the city with the famous Leaning Tower, about 1175 AD. The Lucas numbers
are defined by the equations
and
satisfy the same recurrence
1, 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, 76,123, ... The French mathematician, Edouard Lucas (1842-1891), was the first who gave the series of numbers 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, .. the name the Fibonacci Numbers. Assuming that the
sequence Fn has the form
Substituting
or equivalent
But
This is a quadratic equation with res pect to the real parameter l having the roots
Thus the sequences
verify the equality
(1). So we conclude that the equation (1) can have more solutions. In
general there are an infinite of the sequences verifying (1). Easy to
observe that (1) has the form
where c1,
c2 are fixed real numbers, verifying (1), too.
Also you can prove that any sequence verifying (1) has the form (6). For n = 0 and n = 1 in (6), we get the linear system
having the solutions
Finally, the general term of the Fibonacci sequence has the form
Some Proprieties of the Fibonacci sequence. 1.
Proof:
.
Summing all
equalities we get
but
2.
3.
2. and 3. can be proven in a similar manner. 4.
Proof: It is easy to
observe that
From this we have successively the equalities:
.
Summing all these
equalities we get (9). 5.
Prove that
where Fn is the n-th term of the Fibonacci sequences. Proof: Using (1) and (9) then (10) is easy to be proven. But my goal is to
prove (10) using the mathematical induction. Ill proceed by
mathematical induction with respect
For m = 1,
the equality (10) becomes
(10) is true for m=1. (For example when m = 2 the formula (10) is true
Assuming that (10) is true for m = k and m = k + 1. Ill prove that (10) is true for m = k + 2, too. Therefore, being
true the equalities
Summing both
equalities we get
in fact this is (10)
for m = k + 2. 6. Prove that
Proof:
If in (10)
m = n
we get
7. Prove that
Proof: Again Ill proceed for (11) by mathematical induction. For n = 2
then (11) becomes
Assuming that (11) is true for n, Ill prove that it is true for n + 1, too. So
Next using (1) I
have
Hence condition (11) is true for n + 1. |